UK Contract law homework?

Hi, I'm a British law student, I really need help from law students who is studying Common Law or even lawyers. Please help a fellow law student out. Do you think there was an offer or only an invitation to treat in the following scenario? I am quite confused. Thank you :)

Jake & Kate received a letter from a furniture trader on 1ST MAY.

It says: "A new furniture is now for sale at $3000 (original price: $5,000). Pls reply on or before 6TH MAY. Our business hours are from 10-6pm. Order form is behind this letter."

Jake completed the order form with a cheque & sent it our on 6TH MAY.

The furniture trader got it on the 7TH MAY, she told Jake that he had to pay $5,000 because she got the order form after the said deadline.

Kate called the furniture trader that she wanted to buy the new furniture at 11:30pm of 6TH MAY, the furniture trader didn't answer the call and left a voice message.

The furniture trader heard the voice message on 7TH MAY. She told Kate that she had to pay $5,000 not $3,000.

Advise whether Jake & Kate can ask the furniture trader to sell the new furniture to them at the price of $3,000.

Will your answer be different if the completed order from Jake was never received by the furniture trader?

Update:

Hello, would anyone please help me! Thank youu!!!

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