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If the action committed is already a crime why should it be more of a crime based on the identity of the victim ? Does a person of color have more rights than a white male ? I limit the question to white males because the last time I read anything on the subject there had been exactly zero cases of "race" crimes filed against any person of color in America. It seems that you must be a white male to commit a race crime.

These types of laws only further racism in America.

What do you mean "he did not take something"?!?!?!?! HE HAD NO good BEING THERE in any respect! i'm sorry to be harsh, yet you're literally not seeing the information the following and also you want to. he's of route not that "settled" as he did destroy right into a persons'' residing house, in spite of what replaced into or wasn't stolen! awaken! the shown truth that this has been said the Crown court, and by no potential dealt with at Magistrates court aspect, might want to represent that that is extra serious than you're suggesting. In answer for your question - sure that is a custodial sentence. He desires solid legal help.

The idea is that a racially-based crime is more dangerous, because the racial-hatred means the offender is more likely to attack others.

Just like a robber who uses a gun is more dangerous than one who doesn't, so there is a sentence enhancement for using the weapon.

Which race are you trying to enhance?