Car amplifier RMS question?

If a given amplifier claims to be stable outputting 400 Watts @ 4 ohm. Could the amp then output 200 Watts @ 2 ohms? It makes sense to say it can be inferred based on the original 400W @ 4 ohms RMS or am I wrong? Less resistance means more current can pass at once, and less voltage is required to pass an equivalent amount of current to satisfy the power needed to drive the speakers. if power = V x I, in the 2 ohm scenario you need 2x current and 1/2x voltage to do the same thing as with the original 400W @ 4 ohms? is that how it will work?

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